bijections and order types

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Suppose $kappa$ is an infinite cardinal and $alpha$ is an ordinal of cardinality $kappa$. Is it possible to find a bijection $f : kappa to alpha$ such that for all $x subseteqkappa$, $mathrm{ot}(x) leq mathrm{ot}(f[x])$? (Here, $mathrm{ot}(y)$ is the order type of a set of ordinals $y$.)










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    Suppose $kappa$ is an infinite cardinal and $alpha$ is an ordinal of cardinality $kappa$. Is it possible to find a bijection $f : kappa to alpha$ such that for all $x subseteqkappa$, $mathrm{ot}(x) leq mathrm{ot}(f[x])$? (Here, $mathrm{ot}(y)$ is the order type of a set of ordinals $y$.)










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      up vote
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      favorite









      up vote
      4
      down vote

      favorite











      Suppose $kappa$ is an infinite cardinal and $alpha$ is an ordinal of cardinality $kappa$. Is it possible to find a bijection $f : kappa to alpha$ such that for all $x subseteqkappa$, $mathrm{ot}(x) leq mathrm{ot}(f[x])$? (Here, $mathrm{ot}(y)$ is the order type of a set of ordinals $y$.)










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      Suppose $kappa$ is an infinite cardinal and $alpha$ is an ordinal of cardinality $kappa$. Is it possible to find a bijection $f : kappa to alpha$ such that for all $x subseteqkappa$, $mathrm{ot}(x) leq mathrm{ot}(f[x])$? (Here, $mathrm{ot}(y)$ is the order type of a set of ordinals $y$.)







      set-theory lo.logic






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      asked Nov 8 at 1:24









      Monroe Eskew

      7,51512057




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          1 Answer
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          When $kappa = aleph_0$, any bijection works.



          When $kappa$ is uncountable with uncountable cofinality, there is no order-type preserving bijection $fcolon kappato kappa+omega$. Indeed, let $X = f^{-1}((kappa+omega)setminus kappa)$. Then $X$ is not cofinal in $kappa$, so we can pick some $alphain kappa$ greater than every element of $X$, and $f(alpha)<kappa$. Then $text{ot}(Xcup {alpha})>omega$, but $text{ot}(f(Xcup {alpha})) = omega$.



          I'm not sure about the case when $kappa$ is uncountable with cofinality $omega$.






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          • 6




            I think you can proceed similarly when $kappa$ has countable cofinality, using $kappa+omega_1$ instead of $kappa+omega$. The preimage $X$ of the final $omega_1$ must have order-type $leqomega_1$ by the condition in the problem, but it can't be $<omega_1$ by cardinality. So $X$ has order-type exactly $omega_1$, and then $X$ can't be cofinal in $kappa$. Then pick a larger element $alpha<kappa$ and notice that $Xcup{alpha}$ has order-type $omega_1+1$ while its image has order-type only $omega_1$, just as in your proof.
            – Andreas Blass
            Nov 8 at 2:58












          • @AndreasBlass Ah great, thanks for supplying the argument.
            – Alex Kruckman
            Nov 8 at 3:00











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          1 Answer
          1






          active

          oldest

          votes








          1 Answer
          1






          active

          oldest

          votes









          active

          oldest

          votes






          active

          oldest

          votes








          up vote
          9
          down vote



          accepted










          When $kappa = aleph_0$, any bijection works.



          When $kappa$ is uncountable with uncountable cofinality, there is no order-type preserving bijection $fcolon kappato kappa+omega$. Indeed, let $X = f^{-1}((kappa+omega)setminus kappa)$. Then $X$ is not cofinal in $kappa$, so we can pick some $alphain kappa$ greater than every element of $X$, and $f(alpha)<kappa$. Then $text{ot}(Xcup {alpha})>omega$, but $text{ot}(f(Xcup {alpha})) = omega$.



          I'm not sure about the case when $kappa$ is uncountable with cofinality $omega$.






          share|cite|improve this answer

















          • 6




            I think you can proceed similarly when $kappa$ has countable cofinality, using $kappa+omega_1$ instead of $kappa+omega$. The preimage $X$ of the final $omega_1$ must have order-type $leqomega_1$ by the condition in the problem, but it can't be $<omega_1$ by cardinality. So $X$ has order-type exactly $omega_1$, and then $X$ can't be cofinal in $kappa$. Then pick a larger element $alpha<kappa$ and notice that $Xcup{alpha}$ has order-type $omega_1+1$ while its image has order-type only $omega_1$, just as in your proof.
            – Andreas Blass
            Nov 8 at 2:58












          • @AndreasBlass Ah great, thanks for supplying the argument.
            – Alex Kruckman
            Nov 8 at 3:00















          up vote
          9
          down vote



          accepted










          When $kappa = aleph_0$, any bijection works.



          When $kappa$ is uncountable with uncountable cofinality, there is no order-type preserving bijection $fcolon kappato kappa+omega$. Indeed, let $X = f^{-1}((kappa+omega)setminus kappa)$. Then $X$ is not cofinal in $kappa$, so we can pick some $alphain kappa$ greater than every element of $X$, and $f(alpha)<kappa$. Then $text{ot}(Xcup {alpha})>omega$, but $text{ot}(f(Xcup {alpha})) = omega$.



          I'm not sure about the case when $kappa$ is uncountable with cofinality $omega$.






          share|cite|improve this answer

















          • 6




            I think you can proceed similarly when $kappa$ has countable cofinality, using $kappa+omega_1$ instead of $kappa+omega$. The preimage $X$ of the final $omega_1$ must have order-type $leqomega_1$ by the condition in the problem, but it can't be $<omega_1$ by cardinality. So $X$ has order-type exactly $omega_1$, and then $X$ can't be cofinal in $kappa$. Then pick a larger element $alpha<kappa$ and notice that $Xcup{alpha}$ has order-type $omega_1+1$ while its image has order-type only $omega_1$, just as in your proof.
            – Andreas Blass
            Nov 8 at 2:58












          • @AndreasBlass Ah great, thanks for supplying the argument.
            – Alex Kruckman
            Nov 8 at 3:00













          up vote
          9
          down vote



          accepted







          up vote
          9
          down vote



          accepted






          When $kappa = aleph_0$, any bijection works.



          When $kappa$ is uncountable with uncountable cofinality, there is no order-type preserving bijection $fcolon kappato kappa+omega$. Indeed, let $X = f^{-1}((kappa+omega)setminus kappa)$. Then $X$ is not cofinal in $kappa$, so we can pick some $alphain kappa$ greater than every element of $X$, and $f(alpha)<kappa$. Then $text{ot}(Xcup {alpha})>omega$, but $text{ot}(f(Xcup {alpha})) = omega$.



          I'm not sure about the case when $kappa$ is uncountable with cofinality $omega$.






          share|cite|improve this answer












          When $kappa = aleph_0$, any bijection works.



          When $kappa$ is uncountable with uncountable cofinality, there is no order-type preserving bijection $fcolon kappato kappa+omega$. Indeed, let $X = f^{-1}((kappa+omega)setminus kappa)$. Then $X$ is not cofinal in $kappa$, so we can pick some $alphain kappa$ greater than every element of $X$, and $f(alpha)<kappa$. Then $text{ot}(Xcup {alpha})>omega$, but $text{ot}(f(Xcup {alpha})) = omega$.



          I'm not sure about the case when $kappa$ is uncountable with cofinality $omega$.







          share|cite|improve this answer












          share|cite|improve this answer



          share|cite|improve this answer










          answered Nov 8 at 2:11









          Alex Kruckman

          1,46411012




          1,46411012








          • 6




            I think you can proceed similarly when $kappa$ has countable cofinality, using $kappa+omega_1$ instead of $kappa+omega$. The preimage $X$ of the final $omega_1$ must have order-type $leqomega_1$ by the condition in the problem, but it can't be $<omega_1$ by cardinality. So $X$ has order-type exactly $omega_1$, and then $X$ can't be cofinal in $kappa$. Then pick a larger element $alpha<kappa$ and notice that $Xcup{alpha}$ has order-type $omega_1+1$ while its image has order-type only $omega_1$, just as in your proof.
            – Andreas Blass
            Nov 8 at 2:58












          • @AndreasBlass Ah great, thanks for supplying the argument.
            – Alex Kruckman
            Nov 8 at 3:00














          • 6




            I think you can proceed similarly when $kappa$ has countable cofinality, using $kappa+omega_1$ instead of $kappa+omega$. The preimage $X$ of the final $omega_1$ must have order-type $leqomega_1$ by the condition in the problem, but it can't be $<omega_1$ by cardinality. So $X$ has order-type exactly $omega_1$, and then $X$ can't be cofinal in $kappa$. Then pick a larger element $alpha<kappa$ and notice that $Xcup{alpha}$ has order-type $omega_1+1$ while its image has order-type only $omega_1$, just as in your proof.
            – Andreas Blass
            Nov 8 at 2:58












          • @AndreasBlass Ah great, thanks for supplying the argument.
            – Alex Kruckman
            Nov 8 at 3:00








          6




          6




          I think you can proceed similarly when $kappa$ has countable cofinality, using $kappa+omega_1$ instead of $kappa+omega$. The preimage $X$ of the final $omega_1$ must have order-type $leqomega_1$ by the condition in the problem, but it can't be $<omega_1$ by cardinality. So $X$ has order-type exactly $omega_1$, and then $X$ can't be cofinal in $kappa$. Then pick a larger element $alpha<kappa$ and notice that $Xcup{alpha}$ has order-type $omega_1+1$ while its image has order-type only $omega_1$, just as in your proof.
          – Andreas Blass
          Nov 8 at 2:58






          I think you can proceed similarly when $kappa$ has countable cofinality, using $kappa+omega_1$ instead of $kappa+omega$. The preimage $X$ of the final $omega_1$ must have order-type $leqomega_1$ by the condition in the problem, but it can't be $<omega_1$ by cardinality. So $X$ has order-type exactly $omega_1$, and then $X$ can't be cofinal in $kappa$. Then pick a larger element $alpha<kappa$ and notice that $Xcup{alpha}$ has order-type $omega_1+1$ while its image has order-type only $omega_1$, just as in your proof.
          – Andreas Blass
          Nov 8 at 2:58














          @AndreasBlass Ah great, thanks for supplying the argument.
          – Alex Kruckman
          Nov 8 at 3:00




          @AndreasBlass Ah great, thanks for supplying the argument.
          – Alex Kruckman
          Nov 8 at 3:00


















           

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