Noun form of “aver”?












16















It is common in legal writing to aver, meaning to allege, assert, or affirm a fact. (Latin root is adver.)



But I can't find any evidence that the obvious noun form of the word, aversion, has ever been used as such. Instead, aversion has always and only been the noun form of avert, derivative of the Latin root avers (meaning something like to turn away).



I.e., it seems like the avert verb root blocked the noun form aversion from being used with the aver verb. Is this correct? If so, is there a term for this sort of conflict and deconfliction in English (or in linguistics more generally)?






etymology language-evolution variants







share|improve this question





























    16















    It is common in legal writing to aver, meaning to allege, assert, or affirm a fact. (Latin root is adver.)



    But I can't find any evidence that the obvious noun form of the word, aversion, has ever been used as such. Instead, aversion has always and only been the noun form of avert, derivative of the Latin root avers (meaning something like to turn away).



    I.e., it seems like the avert verb root blocked the noun form aversion from being used with the aver verb. Is this correct? If so, is there a term for this sort of conflict and deconfliction in English (or in linguistics more generally)?






    etymology language-evolution variants







    share|improve this question



























      16












      16








      16


      2






      It is common in legal writing to aver, meaning to allege, assert, or affirm a fact. (Latin root is adver.)



      But I can't find any evidence that the obvious noun form of the word, aversion, has ever been used as such. Instead, aversion has always and only been the noun form of avert, derivative of the Latin root avers (meaning something like to turn away).



      I.e., it seems like the avert verb root blocked the noun form aversion from being used with the aver verb. Is this correct? If so, is there a term for this sort of conflict and deconfliction in English (or in linguistics more generally)?






      etymology language-evolution variants







      share|improve this question
















      It is common in legal writing to aver, meaning to allege, assert, or affirm a fact. (Latin root is adver.)



      But I can't find any evidence that the obvious noun form of the word, aversion, has ever been used as such. Instead, aversion has always and only been the noun form of avert, derivative of the Latin root avers (meaning something like to turn away).



      I.e., it seems like the avert verb root blocked the noun form aversion from being used with the aver verb. Is this correct? If so, is there a term for this sort of conflict and deconfliction in English (or in linguistics more generally)?






      etymology language-evolution variants




      etymology language-evolution variants






      share|improve this question















      share|improve this question













      share|improve this question




      share|improve this question








      edited Nov 16 '18 at 16:40







      feetwet

















      asked Nov 15 '18 at 19:54









      feetwetfeetwet

      787828




      787828






















          2 Answers
          2






          active

          oldest

          votes


















          25














          The noun form is




          averment




          • (Law) A formal statement by a party in a case of a fact or circumstance which the party offers to prove or substantiate.




          (ODO)



          Origin of averment:




          1400–50; late Middle English averrement < Middle French. See aver, -ment.




          -ment suffix usage origin:




          suffix forming nouns, originally from French and representing Latin -mentum, which was added to verb stems sometimes to represent the result or product of the action.







          share|improve this answer


























          • Is it etymologically obvious why -ment is the appropriate noun form, and not -ion?

            – feetwet
            Nov 15 '18 at 20:01






          • 4





            @feetwet - the term, together with the suffix, is from French.

            – user240918
            Nov 15 '18 at 20:08






          • 2





            @feetwet: Aver doesn’t fit in any of the patterns of other words that form nouns with -ion. E.g. the closest comparisons one might think of, conversion, aversion, and reversion, come from convert, avert, revert respectively, and aver doesn’t end analogously to these. Digging back, this is there’s a range of Latin root verbs that form -tion and -sion nouns, and aver doesn’t come from one of these roots (although it does come from Old French/Latin).

            – PLL
            Nov 16 '18 at 9:17





















          19














          There are two noun forms. The everyday one is averral, meaning an act of averring; but there is also averment, which has more of a legalistic flavour, as described in user240918's answer.



          Edited to add: It seems from the comments that I am wrong about averral, at least as far as all the dictionaries in the world are concerned. I shall just have to stop using it, I suppose.



          By the way, aversion is by no means the obvious noun form of aver. For example, from infer we get inference; from deter we get deterrence; from confer we get conferral or conferment. If you tried to use infersion, detersion or confersion, nobody would even know what you were trying to say!






          share|improve this answer





















          • 2





            averral is non-standard.

            – Kris
            Nov 16 '18 at 9:53











          • @Kris: For me, it's averment that's non-standard. But I must admit that Google Ngrams agrees with you!

            – TonyK
            Nov 16 '18 at 11:23











          • Averral appears to be a rare term, and unlike averment, is not present in more common dictionaries. google.it/…

            – user240918
            Nov 16 '18 at 13:34








          • 2





            @TonyK - Merriam Webster and Oxford Dictionaries online disagree. Both have averment, neither has averral (the latter redirects this, though, so they're aware of it).

            – T.J. Crowder
            Nov 16 '18 at 13:38






          • 1





            @JanusBahsJacquet I thought about that, and it's certainly a logical parallel (at least at first glance; I don't know about the Latin roots). I just have the sense of having actually used/heard averral more often, probably in law school or other legal settings, but the corpora and my legal dictionaries don't bear that out and I think I'd be more likely to conflate avowal and averral since they're more semantically similar. FWIW, I don't get any "tingle of familiarity" for averence ;-).

            – 1006a
            Nov 16 '18 at 17:20











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          2 Answers
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          2 Answers
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          active

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          25














          The noun form is




          averment




          • (Law) A formal statement by a party in a case of a fact or circumstance which the party offers to prove or substantiate.




          (ODO)



          Origin of averment:




          1400–50; late Middle English averrement < Middle French. See aver, -ment.




          -ment suffix usage origin:




          suffix forming nouns, originally from French and representing Latin -mentum, which was added to verb stems sometimes to represent the result or product of the action.







          share|improve this answer


























          • Is it etymologically obvious why -ment is the appropriate noun form, and not -ion?

            – feetwet
            Nov 15 '18 at 20:01






          • 4





            @feetwet - the term, together with the suffix, is from French.

            – user240918
            Nov 15 '18 at 20:08






          • 2





            @feetwet: Aver doesn’t fit in any of the patterns of other words that form nouns with -ion. E.g. the closest comparisons one might think of, conversion, aversion, and reversion, come from convert, avert, revert respectively, and aver doesn’t end analogously to these. Digging back, this is there’s a range of Latin root verbs that form -tion and -sion nouns, and aver doesn’t come from one of these roots (although it does come from Old French/Latin).

            – PLL
            Nov 16 '18 at 9:17


















          25














          The noun form is




          averment




          • (Law) A formal statement by a party in a case of a fact or circumstance which the party offers to prove or substantiate.




          (ODO)



          Origin of averment:




          1400–50; late Middle English averrement < Middle French. See aver, -ment.




          -ment suffix usage origin:




          suffix forming nouns, originally from French and representing Latin -mentum, which was added to verb stems sometimes to represent the result or product of the action.







          share|improve this answer


























          • Is it etymologically obvious why -ment is the appropriate noun form, and not -ion?

            – feetwet
            Nov 15 '18 at 20:01






          • 4





            @feetwet - the term, together with the suffix, is from French.

            – user240918
            Nov 15 '18 at 20:08






          • 2





            @feetwet: Aver doesn’t fit in any of the patterns of other words that form nouns with -ion. E.g. the closest comparisons one might think of, conversion, aversion, and reversion, come from convert, avert, revert respectively, and aver doesn’t end analogously to these. Digging back, this is there’s a range of Latin root verbs that form -tion and -sion nouns, and aver doesn’t come from one of these roots (although it does come from Old French/Latin).

            – PLL
            Nov 16 '18 at 9:17
















          25












          25








          25







          The noun form is




          averment




          • (Law) A formal statement by a party in a case of a fact or circumstance which the party offers to prove or substantiate.




          (ODO)



          Origin of averment:




          1400–50; late Middle English averrement < Middle French. See aver, -ment.




          -ment suffix usage origin:




          suffix forming nouns, originally from French and representing Latin -mentum, which was added to verb stems sometimes to represent the result or product of the action.







          share|improve this answer















          The noun form is




          averment




          • (Law) A formal statement by a party in a case of a fact or circumstance which the party offers to prove or substantiate.




          (ODO)



          Origin of averment:




          1400–50; late Middle English averrement < Middle French. See aver, -ment.




          -ment suffix usage origin:




          suffix forming nouns, originally from French and representing Latin -mentum, which was added to verb stems sometimes to represent the result or product of the action.








          share|improve this answer














          share|improve this answer



          share|improve this answer








          edited Nov 15 '18 at 20:02

























          answered Nov 15 '18 at 19:59









          user240918user240918

          25.3k1070149




          25.3k1070149













          • Is it etymologically obvious why -ment is the appropriate noun form, and not -ion?

            – feetwet
            Nov 15 '18 at 20:01






          • 4





            @feetwet - the term, together with the suffix, is from French.

            – user240918
            Nov 15 '18 at 20:08






          • 2





            @feetwet: Aver doesn’t fit in any of the patterns of other words that form nouns with -ion. E.g. the closest comparisons one might think of, conversion, aversion, and reversion, come from convert, avert, revert respectively, and aver doesn’t end analogously to these. Digging back, this is there’s a range of Latin root verbs that form -tion and -sion nouns, and aver doesn’t come from one of these roots (although it does come from Old French/Latin).

            – PLL
            Nov 16 '18 at 9:17





















          • Is it etymologically obvious why -ment is the appropriate noun form, and not -ion?

            – feetwet
            Nov 15 '18 at 20:01






          • 4





            @feetwet - the term, together with the suffix, is from French.

            – user240918
            Nov 15 '18 at 20:08






          • 2





            @feetwet: Aver doesn’t fit in any of the patterns of other words that form nouns with -ion. E.g. the closest comparisons one might think of, conversion, aversion, and reversion, come from convert, avert, revert respectively, and aver doesn’t end analogously to these. Digging back, this is there’s a range of Latin root verbs that form -tion and -sion nouns, and aver doesn’t come from one of these roots (although it does come from Old French/Latin).

            – PLL
            Nov 16 '18 at 9:17



















          Is it etymologically obvious why -ment is the appropriate noun form, and not -ion?

          – feetwet
          Nov 15 '18 at 20:01





          Is it etymologically obvious why -ment is the appropriate noun form, and not -ion?

          – feetwet
          Nov 15 '18 at 20:01




          4




          4





          @feetwet - the term, together with the suffix, is from French.

          – user240918
          Nov 15 '18 at 20:08





          @feetwet - the term, together with the suffix, is from French.

          – user240918
          Nov 15 '18 at 20:08




          2




          2





          @feetwet: Aver doesn’t fit in any of the patterns of other words that form nouns with -ion. E.g. the closest comparisons one might think of, conversion, aversion, and reversion, come from convert, avert, revert respectively, and aver doesn’t end analogously to these. Digging back, this is there’s a range of Latin root verbs that form -tion and -sion nouns, and aver doesn’t come from one of these roots (although it does come from Old French/Latin).

          – PLL
          Nov 16 '18 at 9:17







          @feetwet: Aver doesn’t fit in any of the patterns of other words that form nouns with -ion. E.g. the closest comparisons one might think of, conversion, aversion, and reversion, come from convert, avert, revert respectively, and aver doesn’t end analogously to these. Digging back, this is there’s a range of Latin root verbs that form -tion and -sion nouns, and aver doesn’t come from one of these roots (although it does come from Old French/Latin).

          – PLL
          Nov 16 '18 at 9:17















          19














          There are two noun forms. The everyday one is averral, meaning an act of averring; but there is also averment, which has more of a legalistic flavour, as described in user240918's answer.



          Edited to add: It seems from the comments that I am wrong about averral, at least as far as all the dictionaries in the world are concerned. I shall just have to stop using it, I suppose.



          By the way, aversion is by no means the obvious noun form of aver. For example, from infer we get inference; from deter we get deterrence; from confer we get conferral or conferment. If you tried to use infersion, detersion or confersion, nobody would even know what you were trying to say!






          share|improve this answer





















          • 2





            averral is non-standard.

            – Kris
            Nov 16 '18 at 9:53











          • @Kris: For me, it's averment that's non-standard. But I must admit that Google Ngrams agrees with you!

            – TonyK
            Nov 16 '18 at 11:23











          • Averral appears to be a rare term, and unlike averment, is not present in more common dictionaries. google.it/…

            – user240918
            Nov 16 '18 at 13:34








          • 2





            @TonyK - Merriam Webster and Oxford Dictionaries online disagree. Both have averment, neither has averral (the latter redirects this, though, so they're aware of it).

            – T.J. Crowder
            Nov 16 '18 at 13:38






          • 1





            @JanusBahsJacquet I thought about that, and it's certainly a logical parallel (at least at first glance; I don't know about the Latin roots). I just have the sense of having actually used/heard averral more often, probably in law school or other legal settings, but the corpora and my legal dictionaries don't bear that out and I think I'd be more likely to conflate avowal and averral since they're more semantically similar. FWIW, I don't get any "tingle of familiarity" for averence ;-).

            – 1006a
            Nov 16 '18 at 17:20
















          19














          There are two noun forms. The everyday one is averral, meaning an act of averring; but there is also averment, which has more of a legalistic flavour, as described in user240918's answer.



          Edited to add: It seems from the comments that I am wrong about averral, at least as far as all the dictionaries in the world are concerned. I shall just have to stop using it, I suppose.



          By the way, aversion is by no means the obvious noun form of aver. For example, from infer we get inference; from deter we get deterrence; from confer we get conferral or conferment. If you tried to use infersion, detersion or confersion, nobody would even know what you were trying to say!






          share|improve this answer





















          • 2





            averral is non-standard.

            – Kris
            Nov 16 '18 at 9:53











          • @Kris: For me, it's averment that's non-standard. But I must admit that Google Ngrams agrees with you!

            – TonyK
            Nov 16 '18 at 11:23











          • Averral appears to be a rare term, and unlike averment, is not present in more common dictionaries. google.it/…

            – user240918
            Nov 16 '18 at 13:34








          • 2





            @TonyK - Merriam Webster and Oxford Dictionaries online disagree. Both have averment, neither has averral (the latter redirects this, though, so they're aware of it).

            – T.J. Crowder
            Nov 16 '18 at 13:38






          • 1





            @JanusBahsJacquet I thought about that, and it's certainly a logical parallel (at least at first glance; I don't know about the Latin roots). I just have the sense of having actually used/heard averral more often, probably in law school or other legal settings, but the corpora and my legal dictionaries don't bear that out and I think I'd be more likely to conflate avowal and averral since they're more semantically similar. FWIW, I don't get any "tingle of familiarity" for averence ;-).

            – 1006a
            Nov 16 '18 at 17:20














          19












          19








          19







          There are two noun forms. The everyday one is averral, meaning an act of averring; but there is also averment, which has more of a legalistic flavour, as described in user240918's answer.



          Edited to add: It seems from the comments that I am wrong about averral, at least as far as all the dictionaries in the world are concerned. I shall just have to stop using it, I suppose.



          By the way, aversion is by no means the obvious noun form of aver. For example, from infer we get inference; from deter we get deterrence; from confer we get conferral or conferment. If you tried to use infersion, detersion or confersion, nobody would even know what you were trying to say!






          share|improve this answer















          There are two noun forms. The everyday one is averral, meaning an act of averring; but there is also averment, which has more of a legalistic flavour, as described in user240918's answer.



          Edited to add: It seems from the comments that I am wrong about averral, at least as far as all the dictionaries in the world are concerned. I shall just have to stop using it, I suppose.



          By the way, aversion is by no means the obvious noun form of aver. For example, from infer we get inference; from deter we get deterrence; from confer we get conferral or conferment. If you tried to use infersion, detersion or confersion, nobody would even know what you were trying to say!







          share|improve this answer














          share|improve this answer



          share|improve this answer








          edited Nov 16 '18 at 14:50

























          answered Nov 16 '18 at 0:18









          TonyKTonyK

          1,939310




          1,939310








          • 2





            averral is non-standard.

            – Kris
            Nov 16 '18 at 9:53











          • @Kris: For me, it's averment that's non-standard. But I must admit that Google Ngrams agrees with you!

            – TonyK
            Nov 16 '18 at 11:23











          • Averral appears to be a rare term, and unlike averment, is not present in more common dictionaries. google.it/…

            – user240918
            Nov 16 '18 at 13:34








          • 2





            @TonyK - Merriam Webster and Oxford Dictionaries online disagree. Both have averment, neither has averral (the latter redirects this, though, so they're aware of it).

            – T.J. Crowder
            Nov 16 '18 at 13:38






          • 1





            @JanusBahsJacquet I thought about that, and it's certainly a logical parallel (at least at first glance; I don't know about the Latin roots). I just have the sense of having actually used/heard averral more often, probably in law school or other legal settings, but the corpora and my legal dictionaries don't bear that out and I think I'd be more likely to conflate avowal and averral since they're more semantically similar. FWIW, I don't get any "tingle of familiarity" for averence ;-).

            – 1006a
            Nov 16 '18 at 17:20














          • 2





            averral is non-standard.

            – Kris
            Nov 16 '18 at 9:53











          • @Kris: For me, it's averment that's non-standard. But I must admit that Google Ngrams agrees with you!

            – TonyK
            Nov 16 '18 at 11:23











          • Averral appears to be a rare term, and unlike averment, is not present in more common dictionaries. google.it/…

            – user240918
            Nov 16 '18 at 13:34








          • 2





            @TonyK - Merriam Webster and Oxford Dictionaries online disagree. Both have averment, neither has averral (the latter redirects this, though, so they're aware of it).

            – T.J. Crowder
            Nov 16 '18 at 13:38






          • 1





            @JanusBahsJacquet I thought about that, and it's certainly a logical parallel (at least at first glance; I don't know about the Latin roots). I just have the sense of having actually used/heard averral more often, probably in law school or other legal settings, but the corpora and my legal dictionaries don't bear that out and I think I'd be more likely to conflate avowal and averral since they're more semantically similar. FWIW, I don't get any "tingle of familiarity" for averence ;-).

            – 1006a
            Nov 16 '18 at 17:20








          2




          2





          averral is non-standard.

          – Kris
          Nov 16 '18 at 9:53





          averral is non-standard.

          – Kris
          Nov 16 '18 at 9:53













          @Kris: For me, it's averment that's non-standard. But I must admit that Google Ngrams agrees with you!

          – TonyK
          Nov 16 '18 at 11:23





          @Kris: For me, it's averment that's non-standard. But I must admit that Google Ngrams agrees with you!

          – TonyK
          Nov 16 '18 at 11:23













          Averral appears to be a rare term, and unlike averment, is not present in more common dictionaries. google.it/…

          – user240918
          Nov 16 '18 at 13:34







          Averral appears to be a rare term, and unlike averment, is not present in more common dictionaries. google.it/…

          – user240918
          Nov 16 '18 at 13:34






          2




          2





          @TonyK - Merriam Webster and Oxford Dictionaries online disagree. Both have averment, neither has averral (the latter redirects this, though, so they're aware of it).

          – T.J. Crowder
          Nov 16 '18 at 13:38





          @TonyK - Merriam Webster and Oxford Dictionaries online disagree. Both have averment, neither has averral (the latter redirects this, though, so they're aware of it).

          – T.J. Crowder
          Nov 16 '18 at 13:38




          1




          1





          @JanusBahsJacquet I thought about that, and it's certainly a logical parallel (at least at first glance; I don't know about the Latin roots). I just have the sense of having actually used/heard averral more often, probably in law school or other legal settings, but the corpora and my legal dictionaries don't bear that out and I think I'd be more likely to conflate avowal and averral since they're more semantically similar. FWIW, I don't get any "tingle of familiarity" for averence ;-).

          – 1006a
          Nov 16 '18 at 17:20





          @JanusBahsJacquet I thought about that, and it's certainly a logical parallel (at least at first glance; I don't know about the Latin roots). I just have the sense of having actually used/heard averral more often, probably in law school or other legal settings, but the corpora and my legal dictionaries don't bear that out and I think I'd be more likely to conflate avowal and averral since they're more semantically similar. FWIW, I don't get any "tingle of familiarity" for averence ;-).

          – 1006a
          Nov 16 '18 at 17:20


















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          Port of Spain

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          For ports in the country of Spain, see List of ports in Spain. City in City of Port of Spain, Trinidad and Tobago Port of Spain City City of Port of Spain Top to bottom (left to right): Skyline of Port of Spain from Gulf of Paria; National Academy for the Performing Arts, Independence Square, Eric Williams Plaza; MovieTowne, Port of Port of Spain Motto(s):  "We Gather Strength As We Go Along" Port of Spain Coordinates: 10°40′N 61°31′W  /  10.667°N 61.517°W  / 10.667; -61.517 Coordinates: 10°40′N 61°31′W  /  10.667°N 61.517°W  / 10.667; -61.517 Country   Trinidad and Tobago Jurisdiction City of Port of Spain Settled 1560 Incorporated (town) 1853 Incorporated (city) 1914 Government  • Mayor Joel Martinez  • Governing body City Corporation Area [1]  • City 12 km 2 (5 sq mi) Elevation [2] 66 m (217 ft) Population (2011) [1]  • City 37,074  • Rank 3rd  • Density 3,090/km 2 (8,000/sq mi)...
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          Run scheduled task as local user group (not BUILTIN)

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          0 I am trying to run a scheduled task with User Group (not a single user). This is working fine when I in the field "when running a task, use the following user account:" insert BUILTIN User Group (for example: Administrators or Users). But when I try it with the created Local User Group (example: TestGroup) it is not working. The Users in the TestGroup are the same as in the Administrators group. What could be the problem? Are there some restrictions to the Created User Group compared to BUILTINUsers? scheduled-tasks taskscheduler windowstaskschedule share | improve this question asked Nov 15 '18 at 15:36 Far...
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